How were so many people Arians prior to Nicaea?
I've always heard that like half the episcopate were Arians prior to the council. How could this be when John 1 plainly says "the Word was with God, and the Word was God... and the Word became flesh?"
I've always heard that like half the episcopate were Arians prior to the council. How could this be when John 1 plainly says "the Word was with God, and the Word was God... and the Word became flesh?"